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My wife was in a car accident on Friday. A car tee boned her in the side, totalling her vehicle. She was injured somewhat, but didn’t have life threatening injuries. She was looking through her insurance information and realized that her insurance had expired. Her car is a total loss and the woman that hit her got a citation. The woman that hit my wifes car was ok and she did show a current updated insurance card. My wife wasn’t cited for no insurance or anything.
What will happen in this predicament ? Will the other insurance company pay for my wifes vehicle ?
Will the other womans insurance pay for the ER visit ?
I have never been in this position before and I’m at a loss for words to be honest. I wouldn’t be asking this question, had my wife of had a current insurance policy.
I told my wife that she may be out of a car and the insurance COULD ( in all possibility ) deny her claim and NOT pay for ANY damages…but I’m not certain about it.
The woman admitted fault to the police officer who arrived on the scene.
* Note : I am honestly embarrassed to be in a situation like this and I can’t believe that it happened the way it did, so please keep that in mind when answering this question. Can you also provide facts based on your answer. Thanks and have a good day.
This is about reference of insurance questions information.
4 Responses to Question about automobile accident and automobile insurance ?
wondermom
April 11th, 2010 at 4:50 pm
First off if it’s less then a month since your insurance coverage has lapsed then your still okay… But even in that time the insurance company sends one several notices that their insurance it going to be running out!!!!
secondly it would depend on the state, because legally your wife didn’t have insurance coverage therefore that car didn’t belong on the road….IF it wasn’t on the road no problem….
You might actually need a lawyer because normally the insurance companies deal with each other fixing about who is paying for what… or your insurance would give you the money until the other persons insurance company ponies up and pays them…….
Mu1
April 11th, 2010 at 5:10 pm
If the woman who hit your wife is found to be at fault – which seems to be the case – then her insurance would be obliged to pay for your wife’s damage as well as her own – if you’d had insurance and had claimed on it, your insurance company would have sought to recover their loss from the woman’s company. It’s down to who was at fault…if it can be established that the woman was 100% to blame, you should get 100% of your costs.
tonalc2
April 11th, 2010 at 5:11 pm
The other person was at fault, the other person’s insurance company will pay for the damages and medical costs. It doesn’t matter if your wife’s insurance was current in that respect.
It’s possible (but not likely) that her insurance company has a grace period that she falls within; if so, contact them and they will handle all financial negotiations. If she is not covered, she’ll have to do all the dealing with the other party’s insurance company by herself.
Or, get herself a personal injury attorney, who will take up to 40% of the award.
She needs to steel herself for the large increase in her insurance premium:
1. Even if she was insured, an accident bumps the premium.
2. If she wasn’t insured, her company probably will not take her back, and she’ll have to go to a company that insures high-risk drivers. They have very high premiums.
rickinnocal
April 11th, 2010 at 5:31 pm
Driving without valid insurance is a crime, but is has “zero” effect on the issue of liability in an accident. If the other woman was the at fault driver then she (and, indirectly, her insurance carrier) is liable for your wifes damage and medical bills.
Richard